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Nathan's avatar

I am grappling with the implications of this line in Book III (1114a20):

“… it was possible at the beginning for both the unjust person, and the licentious one not to become such as they are, and hence they are what they are voluntarily; but once they become such, it is no longer possible for them to be otherwise.”

I get the broader point regarding blameworthiness, but does Aristotle believe the vicious person is totally irredeemable (and perhaps likewise that the virtuous person cannot conceivably become vicious)? Or is something else going on here?

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تبریزؔ • Tabrez • तबरेज़'s avatar

The description of moderation towards the end has a strong hint of stoicism...

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